Author Topic: Six Governing Principles  (Read 24665 times)

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May 10, 2011, 12:08:17 AM
Reply #15

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When I read the Kybalion, there were seven principles.


Egyptian knowledge, after thousands of years of existence, is being devalued this days.

Next time I see it somewhere else, it will go down to five.

Not being very observational, are we?  If you look, you will find all seven of the Kybalion's original tenets are there.  For practical reasons I have reduced them down to six; reasons which you will discover if you put the principles into practice.

Of course I noticed you are posting 6 when ancient knowledge has 7.

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May 11, 2011, 09:30:28 PM
Reply #16

Steve

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Ancient egyptian knowledge? According to the internets, the Kybalion was written in 1908 by Anonymous (well, three anonymous persons. Not The Anonymous from 4chan). It claims to be based on Hermes teachings, but how would a person really know?

Also, if you think Prophecy missed a Principle, then please expand upon the one that he did not put a title over :)

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« Last Edit: May 11, 2011, 09:33:50 PM by Steve »
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May 12, 2011, 02:52:40 AM
Reply #17

Violet

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[...] the Kybalion was written in 1908 by Anonymous [...]
Steve, just so you know, I am going to misuse this quote. :wink:

May 12, 2011, 06:29:33 AM
Reply #18

Mindlessinvalid

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Ancient egyptian knowledge? According to the internets, the Kybalion was written in 1908 by Anonymous (well, three anonymous persons. Not The Anonymous from 4chan). It claims to be based on Hermes teachings, but how would a person really know?

Also, if you think Prophecy missed a Principle, then please expand upon the one that he did not put a title over :)

~Steve

The kybalion was originally oral teachings handed down from master to student since the era that hermes trimegestos entered egypt. The problem though is that the commentaries on the kybalion and the kybalion itself share the same name.

If I remember correctly, one of those maxims wasn't exactly a principle, but rather a derivative of multiple principles making it redundant. I'm going to read the commentaries real quick to see if that's what it was. In lieu of my presence here, carry on with the bickering.
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May 14, 2011, 02:02:56 AM
Reply #19

Violet

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The kybalion was originally oral teachings handed down from master to student since the era that hermes trimegestos entered egypt. The problem though is that the commentaries on the kybalion and the kybalion itself share the same name.
I think the problem Steve is talking about is that the only reason to accept this as true is because the Kybalion claims it to be true. At least, I could very well be wrong, but I have never seen any sort of evidence that suggests the Kybalion is much older than its original publication date. The fact that the Kybalion states so hardly is any evidence: I could write a book about all sorts of interesting things, then write down how this 'was originally the oral teachings of, say, Pythagoras, handed down from master to student' - the not-so-nice thing about this of course being that since I am talking about oral teachings handed down from master to student, providing any sort of evidence is no longer required (for the simple reason that I previously claimed that such evidence would be nonexistent). Thus, I am practically asking you just to take my word for it.

November 21, 2015, 10:36:12 AM
Reply #20

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One question I still have is how if we are all energy in different vibratory States then we are all technically one. Then why is there polarity and gender if  everything in a broken down reality is the same?

I'm sorry if i do not make as much sense as i should. the question forms better in my head

Think about it like this...

Everything exists on a spectrum. That spectrum is what creates the experience of polarity and gender, but the source is 1. Like white light.

November 22, 2015, 05:51:11 AM
Reply #21

Rayn

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One question I still have is how if we are all energy in different vibratory States then we are all technically one. Then why is there polarity and gender if  everything in a broken down reality is the same?

I'm sorry if i do not make as much sense as i should. the question forms better in my head

Think about it like this...

Everything exists on a spectrum. That spectrum is what creates the experience of polarity and gender, but the source is 1. Like white light.

This idea that things are the same is pretty much logically flawed to begin with, because it presupposes that objects in the same set have the same values. Take for example a spectrum of colors from white light. In order for nothing to be different between two or more entities, it has to equal the same value(like x=y where x=2-1 and y=3-2 making it 1=1). It is actually a sentiment of monistic idealism that is predicated by presupposing that everything is an Absolute One; however, it can be/has been countered via a logical and mathematical rendering(see analytical philosophy).

Say we have blue, red, and green. I can write it as:
blue=blue
green=green
red=red

Blue is not green so blue=green is wrong. blue!=green. But, blue, green, and red are types of colors, right? Not all colors that exists are blue, so we would write it as color={blue, green, red,...} not color=blue. Or, we can have n={0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,...} 9 is not equal to 1. There is a difference in value between 9 and 1 of 8 even though 9 and 1 are a subset of n.
« Last Edit: November 22, 2015, 06:08:00 AM by Rayn »
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